Robert Cogdell v. Department of Homeland Security ( 2024 )


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  •                       UNITED STATES OF AMERICA
    MERIT SYSTEMS PROTECTION BOARD
    ROBERT COGDELL, JR.,                             DOCKET NUMBER
    Appellant,                           CH-0752-22-0133-I-1
    v.
    DEPARTMENT OF HOMELAND                           DATE: May 13, 2024
    SECURITY,
    Agency.
    THIS FINAL ORDER IS NONPRECEDENTIAL 1
    Robert Cogdell, Jr. , Hillside, Illinois, pro se.
    Stanislaus A. Gonsalves , Esquire, Oak Brook Terrace, Illinois,
    for the agency.
    BEFORE
    Cathy A. Harris, Chairman
    Raymond A. Limon, Vice Chairman
    FINAL ORDER
    The appellant has filed a petition for review of the initial decision, which
    sustained his removal. Generally, we grant petitions such as this one only in the
    following circumstances:      the initial decision contains erroneous findings of
    material fact; the initial decision is based on an erroneous interpretation of statute
    1
    A nonprecedential order is one that the Board has determined does not add
    significantly to the body of MSPB case law. Parties may cite nonprecedential orders,
    but such orders have no precedential value; the Board and administrative judges are not
    required to follow or distinguish them in any future decisions. In contrast, a
    precedential decision issued as an Opinion and Order has been identified by the Board
    as significantly contributing to the Board’s case law. See 
    5 C.F.R. § 1201.117
    (c).
    2
    or regulation or the erroneous application of the law to the facts of the case; the
    administrative judge’s rulings during either the course of the appeal or the initial
    decision were not consistent with required procedures or involved an abuse of
    discretion, and the resulting error affected the outcome of the case; or new and
    material evidence or legal argument is available that, despite the petitioner’s due
    diligence, was not available when the record closed.       Title 5 of the Code of
    Federal Regulations, section 1201.115 (
    5 C.F.R. § 1201.115
    ).            After fully
    considering the filings in this appeal, we conclude that the petitioner has not
    established any basis under section 1201.115 for granting the petition for review.
    Therefore, we DENY the petition for review. We AFFIRM the initial decision
    except as expressly MODIFIED to address the appellant’s whistleblower reprisal
    affirmative defense.
    BACKGROUND
    The appellant was employed as a GS-13 Intelligence Research Specialist
    with Immigration and Customs Enforcement at the Chicago Office of Homeland
    Security Investigations (HSI). Initial Appeal File (IAF), Tab 7 at 22. The agency
    removed him from his position in December 2021 for failure to follow
    supervisory instructions.   
    Id. at 23-28
    .   This appeal followed.      IAF, Tab 1.
    Following a hearing, the administrative judge issued an initial decision sustaining
    the agency’s charge and the penalty of removal. IAF, Tab 28, Hearing Recording
    (HR), Tab 30, Initial Decision (ID). The appellant has filed a petition for review,
    and the agency has responded in opposition.       Petition for Review (PFR) File,
    Tabs 1, 3.
    DISCUSSION OF ARGUMENTS ON REVIEW
    On review, the appellant does not challenge the administrative judge’s
    findings as to the agency’s charge, nexus to the efficiency of the service, or the
    penalty of removal. PFR File, Tab 1. Rather, he re-raises his affirmative defense
    of whistleblower reprisal and “previously identified EEOC issues.” PFR File,
    3
    Tab 1 at 3-5; IAF, Tab 1 at 9, Tab 23 at 6-18. In her prehearing conference order,
    the administrative judge sanctioned the appellant for violating her order to
    compel him to respond to the agency’s deposition questions by prohibiting him
    from introducing testimony and documentary evidence concerning his affirmative
    defenses.   IAF, Tab 19, Tab 26 at 2, 4-5.     She found that, consequently, the
    appellant failed to meet his burden of proving his affirmative defenses. ID at 11.
    Thus, the issues on review are the following:       (1) whether the administrative
    judge abused her discretion in imposing this sanction; and (2) whether the
    administrative judge correctly determined that the appellant did not prove his
    affirmative defense after imposing this sanction.
    The administrative judge did not abuse her discretion in not allowing the
    appellant to introduce testimonial or documentary evidence concerning his
    affirmative defenses.
    Administrative judges have the authority to impose sanctions as necessary
    to serve the ends of justice, including when a party fails to comply with an
    administrative judge’s order. Simon v. Department of Commerce, 
    111 M.S.P.R. 381
    , ¶ 11 (2009); 
    5 C.F.R. § 1201.43
    . Among the sanctions expressly permitted
    under 
    5 C.F.R. § 1201.43
    (a)(2) for failure to comply with an administrative
    judge’s order is a prohibition “from introducing evidence concerning the
    information sought, or from otherwise relying upon testimony related to that
    information.” See Harp v. Department of the Army, 
    791 F.2d 161
    , 163 & n.2
    (Fed. Cir. 1986). The Board ordinarily will not disturb an administrative judge’s
    determination to impose a sanction unless it is shown that she abused her
    discretion or that her erroneous ruling adversely affected a party’s substantive
    rights. Simon, 
    111 M.S.P.R. 381
    , ¶ 11. The Board also may look to the Federal
    Rules of Civil Procedure for guidance on a “just” sanction under the
    circumstances and whether the administrative judge exercised her authority
    accordingly. See Wagner v. Department of Homeland Security , 
    105 M.S.P.R. 67
    ,
    ¶¶ 14-15 (2007); see also 
    5 C.F.R. § 1201.72
    (a); Fed. R. Civ. P. 37(b).         A
    4
    sanction under the Federal Rules should be “proportionate” to the offense, and,
    when the possibility of a severe sanction is raised, a court should consider
    carefully whether a lesser sanction would be more appropriate for a particular
    violation. Wagner, 
    105 M.S.P.R. 67
    , ¶ 15.
    The appellant has not shown that the administrative judge abused her
    discretion when she prohibited the appellant from introducing testimonial or
    documentary evidence concerning his affirmative defenses.            She imposed the
    sanction for the appellant’s repeated refusals to respond to the agency’s questions
    regarding his alleged whistleblower disclosures at its second attempt to depose
    him.   IAF, Tab 26 at 2; e.g., IAF, Tab 22 at 17-37, 59-61.            In doing so, he
    knowingly violated the administrative judge’s May 9, 2022 order to compel
    responses to depositions, which she re-affirmed in her May 11, 2022 order
    denying the appellant’s motion to strike. 2       IAF, Tabs 19, 21.       The sanction
    imposed was expressly permitted under 
    5 C.F.R. § 1201.43
    (a)(2) under these
    circumstances. IAF, Tab 26 at 2. Moreover, the sanction was “just” under the
    Federal Rules of Civil Procedure because it recognized that the evidence related
    to the affirmative defenses was not subject to fair testing by the agency through
    deposition. See Smets v. Department of the Navy, 
    117 M.S.P.R. 164
    , ¶ 12 (2011),
    aff’d, 
    498 F. App’x 1
     (Fed. Cir. 2012); Wagner, 
    105 M.S.P.R. 67
    , ¶¶ 13-15.
    Accordingly, we find that the administrative judge did not abuse her discretion in
    imposing this sanction.
    Despite the administrative judge’s sanction precluding the appellant from
    offering evidence in support of his affirmative defenses, the record nevertheless
    contains some evidence, primarily submitted by the agency, in connection with
    2
    In his motion to strike, the appellant argued that he should not have been compelled to
    answer the agency’s questions about his alleged whistleblower disclosures because
    those questions should have been directed to the Department of Homeland Security
    Policy Office for a policy determination. IAF, Tab 20 at 5. He also argued that the
    venue of an oral deposition did not afford him whistleblower protections. 
    Id.
     The
    administrative judge found that his reasoning was not a proper basis for not responding
    or objecting to the agency’s deposition questions. IAF, Tab 21 at 2. We agree.
    5
    these issues. Therefore, we supplement the initial decision to expressly address
    the appellant’s claim of whistleblower reprisal, which he re-raises on review.
    PFR File, Tab 1 at 3-5; IAF, Tab 1 at 9.
    The appellant did not prove his affirmative defense of whistleblower reprisal.
    In an adverse action appeal, such as this, an appellant’s claim of
    whistleblower reprisal is treated as an affirmative defense.                  Shannon v.
    Department of Veterans Affairs, 
    121 M.S.P.R. 221
    , ¶ 21 (2014). To establish a
    prima facie case of whistleblower reprisal, an appellant must prove by
    preponderant evidence that he made a protected disclosure as described under
    
    5 U.S.C. § 2302
    (b)(8) or engaged in protected activity as described under
    
    5 U.S.C. § 2302
    (b)(9)(A)(i), (B), (C), or (D), and the disclosure or protected
    activity was a contributing factor in the agency’s decision to take or fail to take a
    personnel action outlined in 
    5 U.S.C. § 2302
    (a)(2)(A). 
    5 U.S.C. § 1221
    (e)(1); see
    Ayers v. Department of the Army, 
    123 M.S.P.R. 11
    , ¶ 12 & n.1 (2015).
    A protected disclosure is a contributing factor if it in any way affects an
    agency’s decision to take a personnel action. Dorney v. Department of the Army,
    
    117 M.S.P.R. 480
    , ¶ 14 (2012). One way to establish contributing factor is the
    knowledge/timing test. Wadhwa v. Department of Veterans Affairs , 
    110 M.S.P.R. 615
    , ¶ 12, aff’d, 
    353 F. App’x 435
     (Fed. Cir. 2009). Under that test, an appellant
    can prove the contributing factor element through evidence showing that the
    official taking the personnel action knew of the disclosure and that the personnel
    action occurred within a period of time such that a reasonable person could
    conclude that the disclosure was a contributing factor in the personnel action.
    Id.;   see   
    5 U.S.C. § 1221
    (e)(1).      If   an   appellant   fails   to   satisfy   the
    knowledge/timing test, the Board considers other evidence, such as that
    pertaining to the strength or weakness of the agency’s reasons for taking the
    actions, whether the whistleblowing was personally directed at the proposing or
    deciding officials, and whether those individuals had a desire or motive to
    6
    retaliate against the appellant. Rumsey v. Department of Justice, 
    120 M.S.P.R. 259
    , ¶ 26 (2013); Dorney, 
    117 M.S.P.R. 480
    , ¶ 15.
    If the appellant establishes a prima facie case of whistleblower reprisal, the
    burden shifts to the agency to show by clear and convincing evidence that it
    would have taken the same personnel action in the absence of any protected
    activity. See Ayers, 
    123 M.S.P.R. 11
    , ¶ 27. In determining whether the agency
    made such a showing, we generally consider the following factors:            (1) the
    strength of the agency’s evidence in support of its action; (2) the existence and
    strength of any motive to retaliate on the part of the agency officials who were
    involved in the decision; and (3) any evidence that the agency takes similar
    actions against employees who are not whistleblowers but who are otherwise
    similarly situated. Id.; see Carr v. Social Security Administration, 
    185 F.3d 1318
    ,
    1323 (Fed. Cir. 1999).
    In his initial appeal, the appellant raised a claim that the agency retaliated
    against him for making protected disclosures. IAF, Tab 1 at 9. He filed an Office
    of Special Counsel (OSC) complaint, on or around November 2021, which he
    submitted to the agency as his reply to the notice of proposed removal. 3 IAF,
    Tab 7 at 23, 35-59. He also alleged several protected disclosures or activities in
    his sworn pleading before the administrative judge. IAF, Tab 23 at 6-18. We
    discern from these submissions the following alleged protected disclosures and
    activities: participation in another employee’s EEO complaint in May 2015, IAF,
    Tab 7 at 42, Tab 23 at 33; multiple emails sent to agency employees since
    December 3, 2020, disclosing violations of law, rule or regulation, gross
    mismanagement, gross waste of funds, or abuse of authority, IAF, Tab 7 at 42-43,
    Tab 23 at 6-7, 14-15; an April 2021 “grievance escalation email” alleging a
    hostile work environment, IAF, Tab 7 at 50, Tab 23 at 13; and email(s) in 2021
    3
    We have considered the appellant’s allegations in his November 2021 OSC complaint
    as part of his allegations in this case. IAF, Tab 7 at 35-59; PFR File, Tab 1 at 3-5.
    However, the appellant has not alleged retaliation for filing the November 2021 OSC
    complaint. IAF, Tab 23; PFR File, Tab 1 at 3-5.
    7
    requesting to reopen a Department of Homeland Security Office of Inspector
    General (OIG) complaint, IAF, Tab 23 at 7, 13, 17; PFR File, Tab 1 at 3.
    Participation in another employee’s EEO complaint in May 2015
    The appellant provided the deciding official with his OSC complaint in
    reply to the notice of proposed removal. IAF, Tab 7 at 23, 35-59. In his OSC
    complaint, he listed as a protected whistleblowing activity that, in May 2015, he
    “participated in” another employee’s EEO complaint filed against the Chief
    Intelligence Officer (CIO).     Id. at 42. 4   He appeared to re-raise a claim of
    retaliation based on this protected activity before the administrative judge. IAF,
    Tab 23 at 33.
    Testifying for or otherwise lawfully assisting any individual in the exercise
    of any appeal, complaint, or grievance right granted by any law, rule, or
    regulation is a protected activity under 5 U.S.C. 2302(b)(9)(B). See Edwards v.
    Department of Labor, 
    2022 MSPB 9
    , ¶¶ 26-27, aff’d, No. 2022-1967, 
    2023 WL 4398002
     (Fed. Cir. Jul. 7, 2023); Alarid v. Department of the Army, 
    122 M.S.P.R. 600
    , ¶ 10 (2015). Accordingly, an affirmative defense of reprisal for this activity
    is subject to the burden-shifting standards set forth in 
    5 U.S.C. § 1221
    (e). Alarid,
    
    122 M.S.P.R. 600
    , ¶ 12. Here, the preponderant evidence shows that the deciding
    official first learned of his alleged EEO activity in November 2021, when the
    appellant supplied his OSC complaint in response to the proposal notice. 5 IAF,
    Tab 7 at 23, 42; HR (testimony of the deciding official). He decided to remove
    4
    On review, the appellant contends that there were “several previously identified EEOC
    issues” that were not addressed in the initial decision. PFR File, Tab 1 at 5. The
    appellant’s OSC complaint and prehearing submission also contain references to alleged
    Title VII, Civil Rights Act violations, and a hostile work environment, for example.
    IAF, Tab 7 at 44, 50, Tab 23 at 7. To the extent that the appellant is alleging that he
    was removed because of retaliation in violation of Title VII outside the whistleblower
    context, we have discerned no direct or circumstantial evidence that any consideration
    prohibited under Title VII was at least a motivating factor in his removal. See Pridgen
    v. Office of Management and Budget, 
    2022 MSPB 31
    . To the extent that the appellant
    may have raised any additional affirmative defenses, IAF, Tab 23 at 6-10, he has not
    made any arguments regarding them on petition for review, and we will not consider
    them further.
    8
    the appellant in December 2021. IAF, Tab 7 at 23-28. Thus, the contributing
    factor standard is established through the knowledge/timing test. See Salinas v.
    Department of the Army, 
    94 M.S.P.R. 54
    , ¶ 9 (2003) (stating that the acting
    officials’ knowledge of the disclosure and the timing of the personnel action
    constitute the circumstantial evidence relevant to contributing factor under the
    knowledge/timing test).
    We next turn to the question of whether the agency proved by clear and
    convincing evidence that it would have separated the appellant absent his
    protected activity.   As to the first Carr factor, the strength of the agency’s
    evidence in support of its action, the administrative judge found that the agency
    proved all seven specifications of its charge of failure to follow instructions. ID
    at 7; IAF, Tab 7 at 60-61. Significantly, the appellant did not deny the factual
    basis of the charge, i.e., that he failed to complete his assignments as instructed.
    HR (testimony of the appellant).      Rather, he challenged the propriety of the
    instructions based on, among other things, the U.S. Constitution. IAF, Tab 23
    at 8-10; HR (testimony of the appellant).     The administrative judge found the
    appellant’s assertions of constitutional violations unpersuasive, and she credited
    the testimonies of the appellant’s supervisors that the instructions comported with
    agency policy and procedures. ID at 5-8. We discern no error in that regard.
    Thus, we find that the agency had strong, legitimate reasons for the appellant’s
    removal.
    Regarding the second Carr factor, the record contains no evidence other
    than circumstantial evidence of knowledge/timing concerning any retaliatory
    motive on the part of the deciding official.       The deciding official testified
    persuasively regarding his decision to sustain the appellant’s removal, which did
    5
    We assume without deciding that the appellant engaged in protected activity under
    section 2302(b)(9)(B). In any event, the Board has explained that whistleblower
    protections extend to individuals who were perceived to engage in protected activity,
    even if they had not done so. See Corthell v. Department of Homeland Security,
    
    123 M.S.P.R. 417
    , ¶¶ 9-12 (2016), overruled on other grounds by Requena v.
    Department of Homeland Security, 
    2022 MSPB 39
    .
    9
    not include any improper considerations. HR (testimony of the deciding official).
    To the extent that the deciding official may have been influenced by the
    retaliatory motives of other agency officials involved in the decision, there is no
    indication in the record that any other official had knowledge of the appellant’s
    purported activity except for—presumably—the CIO. According to the appellant,
    the CIO was the accused official in the 2015 EEO case. IAF, Tab 7 at 42. The
    agency’s specifications and underlying evidence reflect that the CIO was the
    appellant’s second-line supervisor at the time of the removal action and was
    involved to some degree in the issuance of the supervisory instructions
    underlying its charge.     
    Id. at 60-61, 68, 72-73
    ; HR (testimony of the CIO).
    However, the record does not contain other evidence of a retaliatory motive on
    the part of the CIO, who, notably, had been a supervisor in the appellant’s chain
    of command since the purported EEO activity in 2015 without incident.           HR
    (testimony of the CIO). Ultimately, we find that the agency has established that
    there was not a strong motive to retaliate on the part of the agency officials who
    were involved in the decision.
    Lastly, the third Carr factor cannot weigh in the agency’s favor because the
    record does not definitely establish that the agency has taken similar actions
    against non-whistleblowers. See Karnes v. Department of Justice, 
    2023 MSPB 12
    ¶ 35.    Here, there is no discussion in the record regarding the existence of
    potential comparators. Given the complete absence of evidence on the issue, we
    conclude that Carr factor 3 is removed from consideration and is a neutral factor.
    See id., ¶ 36.
    After weighing the Carr factors, we find that the agency proved by clear
    and convincing evidence that it would have taken the removal action absent the
    appellant’s protected activity under 5 U.S.C. 2302(b)(9)(B).
    10
    Multiple emails sent to agency employees since December 3, 2020,
    disclosing violations of law, rule or regulation, gross mismanagement,
    gross waste of funds, or abuse of authority
    Protected whistleblowing occurs when an appellant makes a disclosure that
    he reasonably believes evidences a violation of law, rule, or regulation, gross
    mismanagement, a gross waste of funds, an abuse of authority, or a substantial
    and specific danger to public health and safety. Pridgen v. Office of Management
    and Budget, 
    2022 MSPB 31
    , ¶ 52. The proper test for determining whether an
    employee had a reasonable belief that his disclosures were protected is whether a
    disinterested observer with knowledge of the essential facts known to, and readily
    ascertainable by, the employee could reasonably conclude that the actions
    evidenced a violation of a law, rule, or regulation, or one of the other conditions
    set forth in 
    5 U.S.C. § 2302
    (b)(8).      
    Id.
       Furthermore, to make a protected
    disclosure of a law, rule, or regulation, an employee ordinarily must identify the
    specific law, rule, or regulation that was violated, unless the statements and the
    circumstances surrounding the making of those statements clearly implicate an
    identifiable violation of law, rule, or regulation. Ayers, 
    123 M.S.P.R. 11
    , ¶ 24.
    The disclosures must be specific and detailed, not vague allegations of
    wrongdoing regarding broad or imprecise matters. Rzucidlo v. Department of the
    Army, 
    101 M.S.P.R. 616
    , ¶ 13 (2006).
    In his sworn prehearing submission, the appellant contended that HSI
    managers in his office violated specific sections of the HSI Case Management
    Handbook, 6 as well as the Fourth Amendment of the U.S. Constitution, when
    using their case management system to process cases because they failed to
    provide an Investigative Case Management (ICM) case number for each
    assignment. IAF, Tab 23 at 8-10. He alleged that, on December 3, 2020, and in
    multiple other emails, he requested to discuss his concerns or obtain ICM case
    numbers from Special Agents and supervisors.         IAF, Tab 7 at 55-58, Tab 23
    6
    For purposes of our analysis, we assume without deciding that the provisions of the
    HSI Case Management Handbook constitute “rule(s)” under section 2302(b)(8)(A)(i).
    11
    at 6-7, 14-15.     However, the only documentary evidence of his actual emails
    reflects that his expressed concerns were vague and conclusory.             IAF, Tab 7
    at 42-43, 7 Tab 8 at 94, 102, Tab 24 at 31-32, 34, 37-38. Although the emails
    express his “firm opinion” that an ICM case number was required for completion
    of his work assignments, e.g., IAF, Tab 24 at 31, he does not identify any specific
    law, rule, or regulation that he believed was being violated by failing to provide
    an ICM case number, IAF, Tab 7 at 42-43; Tab 8 at 94, 102; Tab 24 at 31-32, 34,
    37-38. Indeed, in one instance, his supervisor responded to his email containing
    the disclosure with a request that the appellant “[p]lease help [him] understand
    why [he] ke[pt] raising this as a concern,” which further supports that the alleged
    violation was not identifiable or ascertainable under the circumstances.           IAF,
    Tab 24 at 36. This is not a situation in which the circumstances clearly implicate
    an identifiable violation of law, rule, or regulation. Cf. Ayers, 
    123 M.S.P.R. 11
    ,
    ¶ 24. We therefore conclude that the appellant did not establish that these emails
    contained disclosures that he reasonably believed constitute protected disclosures
    of any type of wrongdoing described under 
    5 U.S.C. § 2302
    (b)(8). See Rzucidlo,
    
    101 M.S.P.R. 616
    , ¶ 13; see also Young v. Merit Systems Protection Board ,
    
    961 F.3d 1323
    , 1328-29 (Fed. Cir. 2020) (agreeing with the administrative judge
    that allegations that employees were taking longer breaks than were permitted and
    that “no work was being done” were so general in nature that they did not rise to
    the   level   of   nonfrivolous   allegations   of   wrongdoing     under    
    5 U.S.C. § 2302
    (b)(8)(A)).
    7
    In his sworn OSC complaint, the appellant identified as protected disclosures a May 6,
    2020 email to the then Deputy Special Agent in Charge (DSAC), a May 8, 2020 email
    to the Assistant Special Agent in Charge (ASAC), and a July 10, 2020 email to the
    DSAC and the ASAC, IAF, Tab 7 at 42-43, and provided excerpts of these emails. We
    have considered these excerpts as evidence of the content of these emails.
    12
    April 2021 “grievance escalation email” alleging a hostile work
    environment
    The appellant reported to OSC that he filed a grievance under agency
    grievance procedures in May 2020 and escalated his claim of “discriminatory
    harassment hostile work environment” in an April 2021 email. IAF, Tab 7 at 38,
    50. He argued in his prehearing submission that he sent a “grievance escalation
    email” in April 2021, regarding hostile work environment and retaliation
    concerns. IAF, Tab 23 at 13. The agency submitted evidence of an April 2021
    email, in which the appellant complained of “ongoing and continually escalating
    hostile   workplace      environment/activities,”     which     he    believed    were
    “fundamentally rooted in [r]etaliation.”      IAF, Tab 24 at 106.         The deciding
    official, who received his email, requested clarification and expressed that it was
    “still not clear to [him] what exactly is [the] grievance.” 
    Id. at 105
    .
    We find no indication in these emails that the appellant was seeking to
    remedy whistleblower reprisal.         IAF, Tab 25 at 105-07; see 
    5 U.S.C. § 2302
    (b)(9)(A)(i).    Assuming that the appellant sought to oppose Title VII
    discrimination or retaliation in this email, we have discerned no direct or
    circumstantial evidence that any consideration prohibited under Title VII was a
    motivating factor in his removal.      See Pridgen, 
    2022 MSPB 31
    , ¶¶ 20-24, 30;
    supra note 4, at 7. 8 Thus, we find that the appellant has not proven an affirmative
    defense based on his April 2021 email.
    Emails in 2021 requesting to reopen a Department of Homeland Security
    OIG complaint
    The appellant reported to OSC that he opened an OIG complaint in
    November 2017. IAF, Tab 7 at 38. In his prehearing submission, he asserted that
    8
    A claim of retaliation for exercising grievance rights outside the whistleblower
    context, i.e., a prohibited personnel practice under 
    5 U.S.C. § 2302
    (b)(9)(A)(ii), is
    evaluated under the Warren standard. See Warren v. Department of the Army, 
    804 F.2d 654
    , 656-58 (Fed. Cir. 1986). To the extent that the appellant has raised this claim, we
    find that it is unproven because the appellant has not shown a genuine nexus between
    retaliation for protected grievance activity and his removal. See 
    id.
    13
    he notified HSI management in November 2021 that he was a “[w]histleblower”
    because he previously reported retaliation to OIG. IAF, Tab 23 at 17. He also
    alleged that he sent an email request to OIG to reopen his complaint sometime in
    the timeframe of February 1 to April 30, 2021, and again following his notice of
    proposed removal in November 2021. IAF, Tab 23 at 7, 13, 17; PFR File, Tab 1
    at 3.   The Board has found that disclosures to an agency’s OIG constitute
    protected activity under 
    5 U.S.C. § 2302
    (b)(9)(C) regardless of their content. See
    Pridgen, 
    2022 MSPB 31
    , ¶ 62. We note, however, that the record contains no
    documentary evidence of the appellant’s alleged OIG complaint from November
    2017 or the appellant’s subsequent email requests to reopen the case in 2021.
    Nevertheless, the record shows that the deciding official became aware of
    at least some of his purported OIG activity in November 2021, when he received
    his OSC complaint in response to the notice of proposed removal. IAF, Tab 7
    at 23, 38; HR (testimony of the deciding official). Therefore, we find that the
    contributing factor standard is established through the knowledge/timing test
    concerning the appellant’s alleged activity under 
    5 U.S.C. § 2302
    (b)(9)(C). See
    Salinas, 
    94 M.S.P.R. 54
    , ¶ 9.
    Applying the Carr factors once more, we again find that the agency had
    strong, legitimate reasons for the appellant’s removal and that this factor
    continues to weigh in the agency’s favor. See supra p. 8. Regarding the second
    Carr factor, we note an additional consideration as it pertains to the appellant’s
    OIG complaint(s). The U.S. Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit (Federal
    Circuit) has instructed the Board to fully consider whether agency officials
    possessed a “professional retaliatory motive” because the whistleblower’s
    disclosures implicated agency officials and employees in general.     See Soto v.
    Department of Veterans Affairs, 
    2022 MSPB 6
    , ¶¶ 14-15 (discussing the Federal
    Circuit’s decisions on this issue). A reasonable inference based on the evidence
    here is that the deciding official presumed that the appellant’s OIG complaint,
    like his OSC complaint, generally implicated the deciding official and others by
    14
    alleging that they ignored the appellant’s concerns regarding ICM Case numbers
    and continued to violate suspects’ constitutional rights. IAF, Tab 7 at 42-43,
    49-50.    However, the agency officials testified credibly and persuasively
    regarding the propriety of their actions, and there is no indication that they
    believed the appellant’s OIG complaint would reflect poorly on them or the
    agency at large. HR (testimonies of the first-line supervisor, the CIO, and the
    deciding official). Because there was no other evidence submitted concerning
    any retaliatory motive, we do not infer one.           Overall, there is only weak,
    circumstantial evidence of a retaliatory motive. Finally, we again find that the
    third Carr factor is a neutral factor because the record is devoid of comparator
    evidence. See supra p. 9. Weighing all three factors, we find that the agency
    proved by clear and convincing evidence that it would have taken the same
    removal action absent the appellant’s purported OIG complaints.                Finally,
    considering the appellant’s alleged protected activity collectively, i.e., both his
    EEO activity in May 2015 and his OIG complaints, our findings are unchanged.
    Accordingly, we affirm the initial decision as modified and sustain the
    appellant’s removal.
    NOTICE OF APPEAL RIGHTS 9
    The initial decision, as supplemented by this Final Order, constitutes the
    Board’s final decision in this matter.      
    5 C.F.R. § 1201.113
    .      You may obtain
    review of this final decision. 
    5 U.S.C. § 7703
    (a)(1). By statute, the nature of
    your claims determines the time limit for seeking such review and the appropriate
    forum with which to file. 
    5 U.S.C. § 7703
    (b). Although we offer the following
    summary of available appeal rights, the Merit Systems Protection Board does not
    provide legal advice on which option is most appropriate for your situation and
    the rights described below do not represent a statement of how courts will rule
    9
    Since the issuance of the initial decision in this matter, the Board may have updated
    the notice of review rights included in final decisions. As indicated in the notice, the
    Board cannot advise which option is most appropriate in any matter.
    15
    regarding which cases fall within their jurisdiction. If you wish to seek review of
    this final decision, you should immediately review the law applicable to your
    claims and carefully follow all filing time limits and requirements. Failure to file
    within the applicable time limit may result in the dismissal of your case by your
    chosen forum.
    Please read carefully each of the three main possible choices of review
    below to decide which one applies to your particular case. If you have questions
    about whether a particular forum is the appropriate one to review your case, you
    should contact that forum for more information.
    (1) Judicial review in general . As a general rule, an appellant seeking
    judicial review of a final Board order must file a petition for review with the U.S.
    Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit, which must be received by the court
    within 60 calendar days of the date of issuance of this decision.               
    5 U.S.C. § 7703
    (b)(1)(A).
    If you submit a petition for review to the U.S. Court of Appeals for the
    Federal   Circuit,   you   must   submit   your   petition   to   the   court    at   the
    following address:
    U.S. Court of Appeals
    for the Federal Circuit
    717 Madison Place, N.W.
    Washington, D.C. 20439
    Additional information about the U.S. Court of Appeals for the Federal
    Circuit is available at the court’s website, www.cafc.uscourts.gov. Of particular
    relevance is the court’s “Guide for Pro Se Petitioners and Appellants,” which is
    contained within the court’s Rules of Practice, and Forms 5, 6, 10, and 11.
    If you are interested in securing pro bono representation for an appeal to
    the U.S. Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit, you may visit our website at
    http://www.mspb.gov/probono for information regarding pro bono representation
    for Merit Systems Protection Board appellants before the Federal Circuit. The
    16
    Board neither endorses the services provided by any attorney nor warrants that
    any attorney will accept representation in a given case.
    (2) Judicial   or   EEOC     review   of   cases     involving   a   claim   of
    discrimination . This option applies to you only if you have claimed that you
    were affected by an action that is appealable to the Board and that such action
    was based, in whole or in part, on unlawful discrimination. If so, you may obtain
    judicial review of this decision—including a disposition of your discrimination
    claims —by filing a civil action with an appropriate U.S. district court ( not the
    U.S. Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit), within 30 calendar days after you
    receive this decision.     
    5 U.S.C. § 7703
    (b)(2); see Perry v. Merit Systems
    Protection Board, 
    582 U.S. 420
     (2017). If you have a representative in this case,
    and your representative receives this decision before you do, then you must file
    with the district court no later than 30 calendar days after your representative
    receives this decision. If the action involves a claim of discrimination based on
    race, color, religion, sex, national origin, or a disabling condition, you may be
    entitled to representation by a court-appointed lawyer and to waiver of any
    requirement of prepayment of fees, costs, or other security.           See 42 U.S.C.
    § 2000e-5(f) and 29 U.S.C. § 794a.
    Contact information for U.S. district courts can be found at their respective
    websites, which can be accessed through the link below:
    http://www.uscourts.gov/Court_Locator/CourtWebsites.aspx .
    Alternatively, you may request review by the Equal Employment
    Opportunity Commission (EEOC) of your discrimination claims only, excluding
    all other issues . 
    5 U.S.C. § 7702
    (b)(1). You must file any such request with the
    EEOC’s Office of Federal Operations within 30 calendar days after you receive
    this decision. 
    5 U.S.C. § 7702
    (b)(1). If you have a representative in this case,
    and your representative receives this decision before you do, then you must file
    17
    with the EEOC no later than 30 calendar days after your representative receives
    this decision.
    If you submit a request for review to the EEOC by regular U.S. mail, the
    address of the EEOC is:
    Office of Federal Operations
    Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
    P.O. Box 77960
    Washington, D.C. 20013
    If you submit a request for review to the EEOC via commercial delivery or
    by a method requiring a signature, it must be addressed to:
    Office of Federal Operations
    Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
    131 M Street, N.E.
    Suite 5SW12G
    Washington, D.C. 20507
    (3) Judicial     review   pursuant     to   the    Whistleblower      Protection
    Enhancement Act of 2012 . This option applies to you only if you have raised
    claims of reprisal for whistleblowing disclosures under 
    5 U.S.C. § 2302
    (b)(8) or
    other protected activities listed in 
    5 U.S.C. § 2302
    (b)(9)(A)(i), (B), (C), or (D).
    If so, and your judicial petition for review “raises no challenge to the Board’s
    disposition of allegations of a prohibited personnel practice described in
    section 2302(b) other than practices described in section 2302(b)(8), or
    2302(b)(9)(A)(i), (B), (C), or (D),” then you may file a petition for judicial
    review either with the U.S. Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit or any court
    of appeals of competent jurisdiction. 10 The court of appeals must receive your
    10
    The original statutory provision that provided for judicial review of certain
    whistleblower claims by any court of appeals of competent jurisdiction expired on
    December 27, 2017. The All Circuit Review Act, signed into law by the President on
    July 7, 2018, permanently allows appellants to file petitions for judicial review of
    MSPB decisions in certain whistleblower reprisal cases with the U.S. Court of Appeals
    for the Federal Circuit or any other circuit court of appeals of competent jurisdiction.
    The All Circuit Review Act is retroactive to November 26, 2017. 
    Pub. L. No. 115-195, 132
     Stat. 1510.
    18
    petition for review within 60 days of the date of issuance of this decision.
    
    5 U.S.C. § 7703
    (b)(1)(B).
    If you submit a petition for judicial review to the U.S. Court of Appeals for
    the Federal Circuit, you must submit your petition to the court at the
    following address:
    U.S. Court of Appeals
    for the Federal Circuit
    717 Madison Place, N.W.
    Washington, D.C. 20439
    Additional information about the U.S. Court of Appeals for the Federal
    Circuit is available at the court’s website, www.cafc.uscourts.gov. Of particular
    relevance is the court’s “Guide for Pro Se Petitioners and Appellants,” which is
    contained within the court’s Rules of Practice, and Forms 5, 6, 10, and 11.
    If you are interested in securing pro bono representation for an appeal to
    the U.S. Court of Appeals for the Federal Circuit, you may visit our website at
    http://www.mspb.gov/probono for information regarding pro bono representation
    for Merit Systems Protection Board appellants before the Federal Circuit. The
    Board neither endorses the services provided by any attorney nor warrants that
    any attorney will accept representation in a given case.
    19
    Contact information for the courts of appeals can be found at their
    respective websites, which can be accessed through the link below:
    http://www.uscourts.gov/Court_Locator/CourtWebsites.aspx .
    FOR THE BOARD:                       ______________________________
    Gina K. Grippando
    Clerk of the Board
    Washington, D.C.
    

Document Info

Docket Number: CH-0752-22-0133-I-1

Filed Date: 5/13/2024

Precedential Status: Non-Precedential

Modified Date: 5/14/2024